IMM Orthopaedic Guess Paper – Paper 2 Orthopaedics
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Section 1: Basic Sciences, Biomechanics & Metallurgy
- 1. According to the syllabus on biomechanics, which law states that bone in a healthy person or animal will adapt to the loads under which it is placed?
- A. Hueter-Volkmann Law
- B. Wolff’s Law
- C. Hilton’s Law
- D. Davis’s Law
- E. Wolf-Chaikoff Effect
- Correct Answer: B. Wolff’s Law
- 2. Which material is explicitly mentioned in the syllabus as a biodegradable material used in Orthopaedics?
- A. Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)
- B. Titanium Alloy
- C. Stainless Steel 316L
- D. Polyglycolic Acid (PGA) suture anchors
- E. Cobalt-Chrome
- Correct Answer: D. Polyglycolic Acid (PGA) suture anchors
- 3. What is the primary characteristic of a Locking Compression Plate (LCP) mentioned in implant metallurgy?
- A. It relies solely on friction between the plate and bone
- B. It requires perfect contouring to the bone surface
- C. It acts as an internal fixator with angular stability
- D. It uses only cortical screws
- E. It compresses the periosteum significantly more than DCP
- Correct Answer: C. It acts as an internal fixator with angular stability
- 4. Which type of screw is designed with a coarser pitch and deeper thread depth for use in metaphyseal bone?
- A. Cortical screw
- B. Cancellous screw
- C. Locking head screw
- D. Cannulated screw
- E. Headless screw
- Correct Answer: B. Cancellous screw
- 5. What is the correct relationship between a drill bit and a screw?
- A. The drill bit must be larger than the screw thread diameter
- B. The drill bit size corresponds to the core diameter of the screw
- C. The tap size is smaller than the drill bit
- D. The gliding hole is drilled with the core diameter bit
- E. The drill bit size is irrelevant to the screw size
- Correct Answer: B. The drill bit size corresponds to the core diameter of the screw
- 6. Which phase of fracture healing is characterized by the formation of a soft callus?
- A. Hematoma formation
- B. Inflammation
- C. Reparative phase
- D. Remodeling phase
- E. Primary union phase
- Correct Answer: C. Reparative phase
- 7. “Primary bone union” (direct healing) requires which mechanical environment?
- A. Relative stability and micromotion
- B. Absolute stability and compression
- C. Distraction forces
- D. Flexible fixation
- E. Large fracture gap
- Correct Answer: B. Absolute stability and compression
- 8. What is the primary function of Bone Cement (PMMA) in orthopaedics?
- A. Osteoinduction
- B. Osteoconduction
- C. Acting as a grout to transfer load
- D. Biological fixation
- E. Antibiotic delivery only
- Correct Answer: C. Acting as a grout to transfer load
- 9. Which of the following is considered an “Osteoinductive” bone graft substitute?
- A. Hydroxyapatite
- B. Tricalcium Phosphate
- C. Bone Morphogenetic Proteins (BMPs)
- D. Calcium Sulfate
- E. Bioactive Glass
- Correct Answer: C. Bone Morphogenetic Proteins (BMPs)
- 10. A “Cannulated Screw” is primarily indicated for:
- A. Diaphyseal fractures
- B. Fixation where guide wire placement precedes screw insertion for accuracy
- C. Osteoporotic bone only
- D. External fixation
- E. Plate fixation
- Correct Answer: B. Fixation where guide wire placement precedes screw insertion for accuracy
- 11. In the context of “Biological tissue”, which structure connects bone to bone?
- A. Tendon
- B. Ligament
- C. Muscle
- D. Fascia
- E. Meniscus
- Correct Answer: B. Ligament
- 12. The “MIPO” technique in fracture management stands for:
- A. Minimal Internal Plate Osteosynthesis
- B. Minimally Invasive Plate Osteosynthesis
- C. Maximum Invasive Plate Osteosynthesis
- D. Multiple Incision Plate Osteosynthesis
- E. Manual Insertion Plate Osteosynthesis
- Correct Answer: B. Minimally Invasive Plate Osteosynthesis
- 13. Which type of intramedullary nail is specifically listed for use in pediatric fractures?
- A. Reamed locking nail
- B. Flexible nails (e.g., TENS)
- C. Cephalomedullary nail
- D. Solid reconstruction nail
- E. Proximal Femoral Nail
- Correct Answer: B. Flexible nails (e.g., TENS)
- 14. What is the definition of “Non-union”?
- A. Healing that takes longer than 3 months
- B. Fracture healing in a deformed position
- C. Cessation of all reparative processes of healing without union
- D. Infection of the fracture site
- E. Refracture after union
- Correct Answer: C. Cessation of all reparative processes of healing without union
- 15. “Suture Anchors” are most commonly used for:
- A. Long bone fractures
- B. Reattaching soft tissue (ligament/tendon) to bone
- C. Skin closure
- D. Nerve repair
- E. Vessel ligation
- Correct Answer: B. Reattaching soft tissue (ligament/tendon) to bone
Section 2: Trauma & Fracture Management
- 16. Which classification system is universally used to classify “Open Fractures”?
- A. Salter-Harris
- B. Gustilo-Anderson
- C. AO/OTA
- D. Garden
- E. Schatzker
- Correct Answer: B. Gustilo-Anderson
- 17. What is the most critical initial step in the management of an open fracture?
- A. Immediate internal fixation
- B. Administration of antibiotics and tetanus prophylaxis
- C. Application of a definitive cast
- D. Immediate bone grafting
- E. Plastic surgery flap coverage
- Correct Answer: B. Administration of antibiotics and tetanus prophylaxis
- 18. A 6-year-old child presents with a wrist injury involving the growth plate. This is classified as:
- A. Greenstick fracture
- B. Torus fracture
- C. Epiphyseal fracture (Salter-Harris)
- D. Pathological fracture
- E. Spiral fracture
- Correct Answer: C. Epiphyseal fracture (Salter-Harris)
- 19. Which method of thromboprophylaxis is mechanical?
- A. Low Molecular Weight Heparin
- B. Aspirin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Intermittent Pneumatic Compression (IPC) devices
- E. Rivaroxaban
- Correct Answer: D. Intermittent Pneumatic Compression (IPC) devices
- 20. Skeletal traction is preferred over skin traction when:
- A. The patient is a child < 10kg
- B. The weight required for reduction is > 5kg (e.g., adult femur fracture)
- C. There is a skin infection at the pin site
- D. The fracture is in the upper limb
- E. The treatment duration is less than 24 hours
- Correct Answer: B. The weight required for reduction is > 5kg (e.g., adult femur fracture)
- 21. In “Damage Control Orthopaedics,” what is the priority for a hemodynamically unstable patient with a femoral shaft fracture?
- A. Immediate Intramedullary Nailing
- B. Open Reduction and Internal Fixation (ORIF)
- C. Temporary stabilization with External Fixation
- D. Skeletal Traction only
- E. Long leg cast application
- Correct Answer: C. Temporary stabilization with External Fixation
- 22. Which clinical sign is the most reliable early indicator of Compartment Syndrome?
- A. Pallor
- B. Pulselessness
- C. Paralysis
- D. Pain out of proportion to injury and on passive stretch
- E. Paresthesia
- Correct Answer: D. Pain out of proportion to injury and on passive stretch
- 23. A “Headless Screw” (e.g., Herbert screw) is indicated for:
- A. Femoral shaft fractures
- B. Intra-articular fragments to avoid cartilage prominence
- C. Locking plate fixation
- D. External fixation
- E. Osteoporotic bone
- Correct Answer: B. Intra-articular fragments to avoid cartilage prominence
- 24. The “Secondary bone union” process involves:
- A. Haversian remodeling only
- B. Callus formation
- C. Direct contact healing
- D. No inter-fragmentary motion
- E. Necrosis of fracture ends
- Correct Answer: B. Callus formation
- 25. Which principle is essential when applying a Plaster of Paris (POP) cast?
- A. Apply it tightly to stop bleeding
- B. Pad bony prominences well
- C. Use hot water to speed up setting
- D. Mold with fingertips
- E. Keep the joint in maximum flexion
- Correct Answer: B. Pad bony prominences well
- 26. Which exposure is mandatory to learn for the humerus according to competencies?
- A. Smith-Petersen approach
- B. Anterolateral or Posterior approach
- C. Kocher-Langenbeck approach
- D. Ilioinguinal approach
- E. Direct lateral approach
- Correct Answer: B. Anterolateral or Posterior approach
- 27. What is the minimum number of ER duties required per week for handling Orthopaedic Trauma?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
- E. Five
- Correct Answer: B. Two
- 28. A patient with a closed tibial fracture in a cast complains of increasing pain and tightness. You should:
- A. Elevate the limb and observe
- B. Administer stronger analgesics
- C. Split the cast and padding immediately
- D. Arrange for a Doppler ultrasound
- E. Ignore it as normal post-fracture pain
- Correct Answer: C. Split the cast and padding immediately
- 29. The term “Reduction” in fracture management refers to:
- A. Removing bone fragments
- B. Restoring anatomical alignment
- C. Reducing limb swelling
- D. Applying a tourniquet
- E. Bone grafting
- Correct Answer: B. Restoring anatomical alignment
- 30. Which soft tissue injury is most commonly associated with a knee dislocation?
- A. Meniscal tear only
- B. Patellar tendon rupture
- C. Multi-ligament injury and potential neurovascular injury
- D. Quadriceps tear
- E. Hamstring strain
- Correct Answer: C. Multi-ligament injury and potential neurovascular injury
- 31. “Malunion” refers to:
- A. Failure of the fracture to heal
- B. Fracture healing in a non-anatomical position (angulation/rotation)
- C. Infection of the fracture
- D. Refracture
- E. Delayed healing
- Correct Answer: B. Fracture healing in a non-anatomical position (angulation/rotation)
- 32. For a “Dislocation of the Hip,” the competency guidelines emphasize:
- A. Immediate open reduction
- B. Emergency closed reduction
- C. Skeletal traction for 3 weeks
- D. Observation
- E. Delayed reduction
- Correct Answer: B. Emergency closed reduction
- 33. Which complication is a primary concern in “Supracondylar fractures of the humerus” in children?
- A. Non-union
- B. Compartment syndrome / Volkmann’s contracture
- C. Infection
- D. Arthritis
- E. Hypertrophy
- Correct Answer: B. Compartment syndrome / Volkmann’s contracture
- 34. The “Weber Classification” is used for:
- A. Distal radius fractures
- B. Ankle fractures
- C. Hip fractures
- D. Tibial plateau fractures
- E. Spine fractures
- Correct Answer: B. Ankle fractures
- 35. A “Colles’ Fracture” involves:
- A. Distal radius with dorsal displacement
- B. Distal radius with volar displacement
- C. Scaphoid fracture
- D. Proximal ulna fracture
- E. Metacarpal fracture
- Correct Answer: A. Distal radius with dorsal displacement
- 36. “Functional Rehabilitation” implies:
- A. Strict bed rest
- B. Early safe mobilization to restore function
- C. Permanent splinting
- D. Avoidance of weight bearing for 6 months
- E. Using a wheelchair only
- Correct Answer: B. Early safe mobilization to restore function
- 37. Which of the following is an indication for “Referral to other health professionals”?
- A. Simple closed fracture
- B. Vascular injury requiring repair
- C. Superficial abrasion
- D. Sprain
- E. Contusion
- Correct Answer: B. Vascular injury requiring repair
- 38. “Debridement” involves:
- A. Primary closure of the wound
- B. Excision of devitalized tissue and foreign material
- C. Application of antiseptic only
- D. Skin grafting immediately
- E. Suture of nerves
- Correct Answer: B. Excision of devitalized tissue and foreign material
- 39. “Thromboprophylaxis” is most strongly indicated in:
- A. Upper limb fractures
- B. Pelvic and Acetabular fractures
- C. Finger fractures
- D. Clavicle fractures
- E. Toe fractures
- Correct Answer: B. Pelvic and Acetabular fractures
- 40. The “Garden Classification” is used for:
- A. Femoral neck fractures
- B. Intertrochanteric fractures
- C. Tibial shaft fractures
- D. Ankle fractures
- E. Humeral shaft fractures
- Correct Answer: A. Femoral neck fractures
- 41. In fracture management, “traction” is defined as:
- A. Compressing the bone ends
- B. The application of a pulling force to align bone fragments
- C. Rotating the limb
- D. Bending the limb
- E. Splinting the limb
- Correct Answer: B. The application of a pulling force to align bone fragments
- 42. Which organism is the most common cause of “Acute Osteomyelitis”?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Streptococcus pyogenes
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- E. Salmonella typhi
- Correct Answer: A. Staphylococcus aureus
- 43. A “Monteggia Fracture” involves:
- A. Fracture of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head
- B. Fracture of the radius with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint
- C. Fracture of both radius and ulna
- D. Fracture of the olecranon
- E. Fracture of the radial head only
- Correct Answer: A. Fracture of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head
- 44. “Myositis Ossificans” is a complication involving:
- A. Infection of muscle
- B. Heterotopic ossification within muscle following trauma
- C. Muscle atrophy
- D. Tendon rupture
- E. Nerve entrapment
- Correct Answer: B. Heterotopic ossification within muscle following trauma
- 45. Which of the following is a sign of “Fat Embolism Syndrome”?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Petechial rash and hypoxia
- D. Hematuria
- E. Abdominal pain
- Correct Answer: C. Petechial rash and hypoxia
Section 3: Plastic Surgery Rotation
- 46. Which classification is used for “Pressure Ulcers”?
- A. Gustilo-Anderson
- B. Wagner Classification
- C. NPUAP Staging (Stage I-IV)
- D. Salter-Harris
- E. Tscherne Classification
- Correct Answer: C. NPUAP Staging (Stage I-IV)
- 47. A “Pedicled Flap” is defined as:
- A. Tissue transferred with its blood supply detached and reconnected
- B. Tissue transferred while maintaining its original blood supply attachment
- C. A skin graft
- D. A synthetic graft
- E. A vacuum dressing
- Correct Answer: B. Tissue transferred while maintaining its original blood supply attachment
- 48. Which is a specific indication for a “Free Flap”?
- A. Small superficial abrasion
- B. Large soft tissue defect with exposed bone where local tissue is unavailable
- C. Closed fracture
- D. Simple laceration
- E. Healthy periosteum suitable for graft
- Correct Answer: B. Large soft tissue defect with exposed bone where local tissue is unavailable
- 49. A “Vacuum Assisted Dressing” (VAC) works by:
- A. Applying positive pressure
- B. Removing edema fluid and promoting granulation tissue via negative pressure
- C. Keeping the wound dry
- D. Delivering antibiotics
- E. Freezing the tissue
- Correct Answer: B. Removing edema fluid and promoting granulation tissue via negative pressure
- 50. A “Split Thickness Skin Graft” (STSG) contains:
- A. Epidermis and full dermis
- B. Epidermis and a portion of the dermis
- C. Epidermis only
- D. Dermis only
- E. Subcutaneous fat
- Correct Answer: B. Epidermis and a portion of the dermis
- 51. Which zone of the hand is known as “No Man’s Land” for flexor tendon injuries?
- A. Zone I
- B. Zone II
- C. Zone III
- D. Zone IV
- E. Zone V
- Correct Answer: B. Zone II
- 52. “Microvascular techniques” are essential for:
- A. Skin grafting
- B. Local flaps
- C. Free tissue transfer (Free flaps)
- D. Wound debridement
- E. Dressing changes
- Correct Answer: C. Free tissue transfer (Free flaps)
- 53. Which of the following is a “Distant Pedicled Flap”?
- A. Z-plasty
- B. Cross-leg flap
- C. Free radial forearm flap
- D. Split thickness graft
- E. Advancement flap
- Correct Answer: B. Cross-leg flap
- 54. A “hard sign” of vascular injury includes:
- A. Palpable pulse
- B. Pulsatile bleeding or expanding hematoma
- C. Warm limb
- D. Mild swelling
- E. Capillary refill < 2s
- Correct Answer: B. Pulsatile bleeding or expanding hematoma
- 55. During the Plastic Surgery rotation, you must acquire skills in:
- A. Craniotomy
- B. Benign & Malignant Soft Tissue Tumor Biopsy
- C. Appendectomy
- D. Cholecystectomy
- E. Caesarean section
- Correct Answer: B. Benign & Malignant Soft Tissue Tumor Biopsy
- 56. Which flap is based on a specific artery and vein?
- A. Random pattern flap
- B. Axial pattern flap
- C. Skin graft
- D. Advancement flap
- E. Rotation flap
- Correct Answer: B. Axial pattern flap
- 57. The primary goal of “Wound Closure” is:
- A. To improve cosmetics only
- B. To restore barrier function and prevent infection
- C. To hide the injury
- D. To use as many sutures as possible
- E. To tighten the skin
- Correct Answer: B. To restore barrier function and prevent infection
- 58. Which finding suggests “Nerve Injury” in a limb trauma?
- A. Loss of sensation or motor function in a specific distribution
- B. Generalized pain
- C. Swelling
- D. Bruising
- E. Warmth
- Correct Answer: A. Loss of sensation or motor function in a specific distribution
- 59. “Reconstructive techniques” in plastic surgery include:
- A. Amputation
- B. Tissue expansion and flap surgery
- C. Casting
- D. Traction
- E. Physiotherapy
- Correct Answer: B. Tissue expansion and flap surgery
- 60. Which of the following is a benign soft tissue tumor?
- A. Rhabdomyosarcoma
- B. Lipoma
- C. Liposarcoma
- D. Fibrosarcoma
- E. Synovial sarcoma
- Correct Answer: B. Lipoma
Section 4: PMR / Physiotherapy & Orthotics
- 61. The “Pavlik Harness” is indicated for:
- A. Clubfoot
- B. Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) in infants
- C. Perthes Disease
- D. Scoliosis
- E. Tibial torsion
- Correct Answer: B. Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) in infants
- 62. Which brace is used for the management of “Scoliosis”?
- A. Thomas Splint
- B. CTLSO / Milwaukee Brace / Boston Brace
- C. Dennis Brown Splint
- D. Robert Jones Bandage
- E. Knee immobilizer
- Correct Answer: B. CTLSO / Milwaukee Brace / Boston Brace
- 63. A “Weight Relieving Caliper” is indicated for:
- A. Perthes Disease
- B. ACL tear
- C. Meniscal tear
- D. Ankle sprain
- E. Hip fracture
- Correct Answer: A. Perthes Disease
- 64. Rehabilitation after “Total Knee Arthroplasty” emphasizes:
- A. Immobilization for 6 weeks
- B. Early and safe mobilization
- C. Non-weight bearing for 3 months
- D. Casting
- E. Bed rest
- Correct Answer: B. Early and safe mobilization
- 65. An “Ankle-Foot Orthosis” (AFO) is commonly used for:
- A. Drop Foot
- B. Knee instability
- C. Hip dysplasia
- D. Wrist drop
- E. Scoliosis
- Correct Answer: A. Drop Foot
- 66. “Cerebral Palsy” patients may benefit from:
- A. Calipers / Gait aids
- B. Shoulder immobilizers
- C. Cervical collars
- D. Pavlik harness
- E. Arm slings
- Correct Answer: A. Calipers / Gait aids
- 67. An “Abduction Brace” is used for:
- A. Shoulder dislocation
- B. Maintaining hip reduction in DDH
- C. Elbow fracture
- D. Wrist sprain
- E. Finger fracture
- Correct Answer: B. Maintaining hip reduction in DDH
- 68. Rehabilitation for “ACL Reconstruction” involves:
- A. Immediate pivoting sports
- B. Progressive range of motion and strengthening
- C. Casting for 3 months
- D. No weight bearing for 12 weeks
- E. Bed rest
- Correct Answer: B. Progressive range of motion and strengthening
- 69. “Flexor Tendon Repair” rehabilitation typically requires:
- A. Controlled passive flexion and active extension (e.g., Kleinert protocol)
- B. Active flexion against resistance immediately
- C. Static immobilization for 8 weeks
- D. No therapy
- E. Casting in extension
- Correct Answer: A. Controlled passive flexion and active extension (e.g., Kleinert protocol)
- 70. For an “Above Knee Amputation,” the prosthesis required is:
- A. Trans-tibial prosthesis
- B. Trans-femoral prosthesis (Above Knee Prosthesis)
- C. Syme’s prosthesis
- D. Chopart prosthesis
- E. Myoelectric arm
- Correct Answer: B. Trans-femoral prosthesis (Above Knee Prosthesis)
- 71. Which orthosis is used for “Clubfoot” (CTEV) maintenance?
- A. Dennis Brown Splint / Foot Abduction Brace
- B. Pavlik Harness
- C. Milwaukee Brace
- D. Thomas Splint
- E. Collar and Cuff
- Correct Answer: A. Dennis Brown Splint / Foot Abduction Brace
- 72. “Proprioceptive training” is crucial in the rehabilitation of:
- A. Ankle sprains and ligament injuries
- B. Skin grafts
- C. Clavicle fractures
- D. Rib fractures
- E. Finger tip injuries
- Correct Answer: A. Ankle sprains and ligament injuries
- 73. What is the function of a “Thomas Splint”?
- A. To immobilize the cervical spine
- B. To splint a femoral shaft fracture
- C. To treat wrist drop
- D. To treat flat foot
- E. To treat scoliosis
- Correct Answer: B. To splint a femoral shaft fracture
- 74. In “Supraspinatus Tear” rehabilitation, early focus is on:
- A. Heavy lifting
- B. Passive range of motion to prevent stiffness
- C. Immobilization for 6 months
- D. Overhead throwing
- E. Push-ups
- Correct Answer: B. Passive range of motion to prevent stiffness
- 75. “Orthotics” are devices that:
- A. Replace a missing body part
- B. Support, align, prevent, or correct deformities of a body part
- C. Are implanted surgically
- D. Measure bone density
- E. Take X-rays
- Correct Answer: B. Support, align, prevent, or correct deformities of a body part
Section 5: Diagnostic Radiology
- 76. “Osteomyelitis” changes on plain X-ray (periosteal reaction/lucency) typically appear:
- A. Immediately
- B. After 10-14 days
- C. After 1 year
- D. Never
- E. Within 1 hour
- Correct Answer: B. After 10-14 days
- 77. MRI is the modality of choice for:
- A. Cortical bone fractures
- B. Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the hip
- C. Renal stones
- D. Lung imaging
- E. Bowel obstruction
- Correct Answer: B. Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the hip
- 78. To visualize “Intra-articular fracture” details (e.g., step-off), the best modality is:
- A. Ultrasound
- B. CT Scan
- C. Bone Scan
- D. Fluoroscopy
- E. Plain X-ray
- Correct Answer: B. CT Scan
- 79. A “Bone Scan” is most useful for:
- A. Ligament tears
- B. Screening for skeletal metastases or occult infection/fracture
- C. Nerve injury
- D. Muscle tear
- E. Skin lesions
- Correct Answer: B. Screening for skeletal metastases or occult infection/fracture
- 80. For “Supraspinatus Tear” evaluation, the best imaging is:
- A. CT Scan
- B. MRI
- C. X-ray
- D. Bone Scan
- E. Angiography
- Correct Answer: B. MRI
- 81. “Scoliosis” is assessed by measuring:
- A. Bohler’s angle
- B. Cobb’s angle
- C. Baumann’s angle
- D. Q angle
- E. Wiberg’s angle
- Correct Answer: B. Cobb’s angle
- 82. “Degenerative Disc Disease” is best visualized on:
- A. MRI of the spine
- B. Ultrasound
- C. X-ray
- D. Bone Scan
- E. CT head
- Correct Answer: A. MRI of the spine
- 83. Which fracture is specific to the “Pediatric” population?
- A. Epiphyseal (Growth plate) fracture
- B. Comminuted fracture
- C. Spiral fracture
- D. Segmental fracture
- E. Pathological fracture
- Correct Answer: A. Epiphyseal (Growth plate) fracture
- 84. “Ligamentous Injuries” (e.g., ACL) are best seen on:
- A. CT
- B. MRI
- C. X-ray
- D. Bone Scan
- E. Ultrasound
- Correct Answer: B. MRI
- 85. “Cubitus Varus/Valgus” is a deformity of the:
- A. Hip
- B. Knee
- C. Elbow
- D. Ankle
- E. Wrist
- Correct Answer: C. Elbow
- 86. “Genu Varus” refers to:
- A. Knock-knees
- B. Bow-legs
- C. Hyperextension
- D. Flat feet
- E. Clubfoot
- Correct Answer: B. Bow-legs
- 87. Which imaging view is best for “Scaphoid Fracture”?
- A. AP view only
- B. Scaphoid view (Ulnar deviation)
- C. Lateral view only
- D. Skyline view
- E. Axillary view
- Correct Answer: B. Scaphoid view (Ulnar deviation)
- 88. “Bohler’s Angle” is measured in fractures of the:
- A. Talus
- B. Calcaneus
- C. Tibia
- D. Femur
- E. Radius
- Correct Answer: B. Calcaneus
- 89. “Baumann’s Angle” is relevant in:
- A. Supracondylar humerus fractures in children
- B. Hip fractures
- C. Ankle fractures
- D. Wrist fractures
- E. Spine fractures
- Correct Answer: A. Supracondylar humerus fractures in children
- 90. An “Involucrum” is seen in:
- A. Chronic Osteomyelitis
- B. Acute fracture
- C. Bone tumor
- D. Rickets
- E. Scurvy
- Correct Answer: A. Chronic Osteomyelitis
Section 6: Comprehensive & Mini-CEX Competencies
- 91. A “Mini-CEX” focusing on “Swelling/Tumor” assesses:
- A. Surgical speed
- B. Clinical skills in history, examination, and diagnosis
- C. MRI reading only
- D. Chemotherapy knowledge
- E. Plaster application
- Correct Answer: B. Clinical skills in history, examination, and diagnosis
- 92. “Limb Length Discrepancy” examination includes measuring:
- A. Abdominal girth
- B. True and apparent leg length
- C. Arm span
- D. Head circumference
- E. Foot size
- Correct Answer: B. True and apparent leg length
- 93. “Paralytic Limb” management (e.g., Polio) often involves:
- A. Amputation
- B. Orthotic support and tendon transfers
- C. Antibiotics
- D. Chemotherapy
- E. Joint replacement
- Correct Answer: B. Orthotic support and tendon transfers
- 94. “Impingement Syndrome” is a common pathology of the:
- A. Hip
- B. Knee
- C. Shoulder
- D. Ankle
- E. Elbow
- Correct Answer: C. Shoulder
- 95. A “Case of Spine Pathology” in Mini-CEX might involve:
- A. Carpal Tunnel
- B. Disc herniation / Sciatica
- C. Rotator cuff tear
- D. Meniscal tear
- E. Hallux valgus
- Correct Answer: B. Disc herniation / Sciatica
- 96. “Sterilization” of metal surgical instruments is best achieved by:
- A. Boiling
- B. Autoclaving (Steam under pressure)
- C. Alcohol
- D. Washing with soap
- E. UV light
- Correct Answer: B. Autoclaving (Steam under pressure)
- 97. “Trendelenburg Sign” tests the function of:
- A. Gluteus Maximus
- B. Gluteus Medius (Hip abductors)
- C. Quadriceps
- D. Hamstrings
- E. Adductors
- Correct Answer: B. Gluteus Medius (Hip abductors)
- 98. “Phalen’s Test” is used to diagnose:
- A. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
- B. De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis
- C. Tennis Elbow
- D. Golfer’s Elbow
- E. Trigger Finger
- Correct Answer: A. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
- 99. A “Baker’s Cyst” is associated with:
- A. Shoulder joint
- B. Knee joint
- C. Hip joint
- D. Ankle joint
- E. Wrist joint
- Correct Answer: B. Knee joint
- 100. The primary objective of the “Orthopaedic Foundation Year” is:
- A. To become a radiologist
- B. To assess, diagnose, and manage musculoskeletal trauma and ailments
- C. To learn hospital administration
- D. To learn neurosurgery
- E. To become a general practitioner
- Correct Answer: B. To assess, diagnose, and manage musculoskeletal trauma and ailments
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