A comprehensive 100-question practice set meticulously designed according to the latest SPSC syllabus for Dental Surgeons (BPS-17). This resource covers all three core sections: Professional & Academic Knowledge (60%)General Knowledge & Pakistan Affairs (20%), and English Proficiency (20%).



Section 1: Professional & Academic Knowledge (60%)

Dental Sciences, Basic Medical Sciences, Clinical Knowledge

1. The only muscle of mastication that opens the mouth (depresses the mandible) is:

  • A. Masseter
  • B. Temporalis
  • C. Medial Pterygoid
  • D. Lateral Pterygoid

2. Which nerve passes through the Parotid Gland but does not innervate it?

  • A. Trigeminal Nerve
  • B. Facial Nerve (CN VII)
  • C. Glossopharyngeal Nerve
  • D. Vagus Nerve

3. The pH of normal saliva is approximately:

  • A. 3.5 – 4.5
  • B. 5.5 – 6.0
  • C. 6.7 – 7.4
  • D. 8.0 – 9.0

4. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnant women due to tooth discoloration in the fetus?

  • A. Amoxicillin
  • B. Cephalexin
  • C. Tetracycline
  • D. Erythromycin

5. The “Safety Valve” of the heart is:

  • A. Tricuspid Valve
  • B. Mitral Valve
  • C. Aortic Valve
  • D. Pulmonary Valve

6. “Ghost cells” are a characteristic histopathological feature of:

  • A. Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst (Gorlin Cyst)
  • B. Dentigerous Cyst
  • C. Radicular Cyst
  • D. OKC

7. The most common malignant tumor of the salivary glands is:

  • A. Pleomorphic Adenoma
  • B. Warthin’s Tumor
  • C. Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma
  • D. Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

8. Nikolsky’s sign is positive in:

  • A. Pemphigus Vulgaris
  • B. Pemphigoid
  • C. Lichen Planus
  • D. Erythema Multiforme

9. A “Ground Glass” appearance on a radiograph is diagnostic of:

  • A. Paget’s Disease
  • B. Fibrous Dysplasia
  • C. Osteosarcoma
  • D. Cementoblastoma

10. Koplik’s spots are seen in the prodromal stage of:

  • A. Mumps
  • B. Measles (Rubeola)
  • C. Chickenpox
  • D. Rubella

11. The smear layer is best removed by:

  • A. Sodium Hypochlorite (NaOCl)
  • B. EDTA (17%)
  • C. Chlorhexidine
  • D. Saline

12. C-Factor in cavity preparation is the ratio of:

  • A. Bonded surfaces to Unbonded surfaces
  • B. Unbonded to Bonded
  • C. Depth to Width
  • D. Enamel to Dentin

13. Which file motion is recommended for ProTaper rotary files?

  • A. Watch-winding
  • B. Reciprocation
  • C. Continuous Brushing / Rotation
  • D. Balanced Force

14. The most common cause of pain after cleaning and shaping is:

  • A. Broken file
  • B. Debris extrusion beyond the apex
  • C. Sodium Hypochlorite accident
  • D. High occlusion

15. Indirect Pulp Capping is indicated when:

  • A. There is a pinpoint exposure
  • B. The tooth is non-vital
  • C. There is no exposure but deep caries approaches the pulp (reversible pulpitis)
  • D. There is periapical pathology

16. The posterior vibrating line is located on:

  • A. The soft palate
  • B. The junction of hard and soft palate
  • C. The hard palate
  • D. The uvula

17. Which impression material produces the most accurate detail (Best for Crown & Bridge)?

  • A. Alginate
  • B. Polysulfide
  • C. Condensation Silicone
  • D. Addition Silicone (PVS)

18. A “Rest” in a Removable Partial Denture (RPD) functions primarily to:

  • A. Retain the denture
  • B. Provide vertical support (prevent sinking)
  • C. Provide stability
  • D. Guide the denture

19. The average inter-occlusal clearance (Freeway Space) is:

  • A. 0-1 mm
  • B. 2-4 mm
  • C. 6-8 mm
  • D. 10 mm

20. Facebow transfer records:

  • A. Relationship of Maxilla to the Hinge Axis
  • B. Relationship of Mandible to Maxilla
  • C. Centric Occlusion
  • D. Vertical Dimension

21. The nerve most commonly injured during the extraction of mandibular premolars is:

  • A. Mental Nerve
  • B. Inferior Alveolar Nerve
  • C. Lingual Nerve
  • D. Buccal Nerve

22. Ludwig’s Angina is a cellulitis involving which spaces?

  • A. Submandibular, Sublingual, and Submental (Bilateral)
  • B. Canine and Buccal
  • C. Retropharyngeal only
  • D. Parotid only

23. Which suture material is non-resorbable?

  • A. Chromic Catgut
  • B. Vicryl
  • C. Silk
  • D. Plain Catgut

24. Caldwell-Luc operation is performed on the:

  • A. Mandible
  • B. Maxillary Sinus
  • C. TMJ
  • D. Salivary Glands

25. The maximum dose of Ibuprofen per day for an adult is:

  • A. 1200 mg
  • B. 2400 mg
  • C. 3200 mg (Max safe dose)
  • D. 4000 mg

26. The “Red Complex” bacteria (associated with severe periodontitis) includes:

  • A. P. gingivalis, T. denticola, T. forsythia
  • B. A. actinomycetemcomitans, P. intermedia
  • C. S. mutans, Lactobacillus
  • D. Fusobacterium, Prevotella

27. Gingival enlargement is a side effect of which drugs?

  • A. Phenytoin, Cyclosporine, Nifedipine
  • B. Aspirin, Paracetamol
  • C. Amoxicillin, Metronidazole
  • D. Steroids

28. The recommended concentration of Fluoride in community water is:

  • A. 0.7 – 1.2 ppm
  • B. 2.0 – 3.0 ppm
  • C. 0.1 ppm
  • D. 5.0 ppm

29. Stillman’s Technique of brushing is recommended for:

  • A. Children
  • B. Orthodontic patients
  • C. Gingival recession
  • D. Implants

30. CPITN Index (Community Periodontal Index) uses which probe?

  • A. Williams Probe
  • B. WHO Probe (0.5mm ball tip)
  • C. UNC-15 Probe
  • D. Naber’s Probe

31. The first permanent tooth to erupt is usually:

  • A. Maxillary Central Incisor
  • B. Maxillary First Molar
  • C. Mandibular First Molar
  • D. Mandibular Central Incisor

32. Pulpotomy is contraindicated in primary teeth if:

  • A. The tooth is vital
  • B. There is no pain
  • C. There is internal resorption or furcation involvement
  • D. The pulp is red

33. Space maintainer of choice for premature loss of a primary second molar (before the 6 erupts) is:

  • A. Band and Loop
  • B. Distal Shoe
  • C. Nance appliance
  • D. Lingual Arch

34. Cephalometric analysis is used to evaluate:

  • A. Caries
  • B. Skeletal and Dental relationships
  • C. Periodontal pockets
  • D. TMJ disc

35. The center of resistance of a single-rooted tooth is located at:

  • A. The apex
  • B. The cervical line
  • C. Junction of the middle and apical third of the root
  • D. The bracket

36. A patient faints (Syncope) in the dental chair. First step:

  • A. Give Adrenaline
  • B. Place in Supine position (Trendelenburg)
  • C. Start CPR
  • D. Give water

37. Sharp pain on thermal changes that lasts for seconds (removed when stimulus is removed) indicates:

  • A. Reversible Pulpitis
  • B. Irreversible Pulpitis
  • C. Necrosis
  • D. Periodontitis

38. “Informal Consent” implies:

  • A. Written document
  • B. Signed by a witness
  • C. Verbal agreement or implied by patient’s actions (sitting in chair)
  • D. Legal court order

39. Sterilization of handpieces is best done by:

  • A. Cold sterilization
  • B. Wiping with Alcohol
  • C. Autoclaving
  • D. UV Light

40. Needle stick injury protocol involves washing the wound and immediately:

  • A. Sucking the wound
  • B. Ignoring it
  • C. Reporting/Testing for Hep B, C, and HIV
  • D. Taking antibiotics

41. Radiographic feature of Periapical Cemental Dysplasia (early stage):

  • A. Radiolucent (often mistaken for abscess/cyst)
  • B. Radiopaque
  • C. Mixed
  • D. Sunburst

42. Treacher Collins Syndrome affects:

  • A. Limb development
  • B. First and Second Branchial Arches (facial bones/ears)
  • C. Heart only
  • D. Kidney

43. Drug of choice for Candidiasis:

  • A. Penicillin
  • B. Nystatin / Fluconazole
  • C. Acyclovir
  • D. Metronidazole

44. Which hepatitis virus is DNA based?

  • A. Hep A
  • B. Hep B
  • C. Hep C
  • D. Hep E

45. “Tram line” appearance on the alveolar ridge is caused by:

  • A. Denture irritation
  • B. Mylohyoid ridge prominence
  • C. Inferior Alveolar Canal
  • D. External Oblique Ridge

46. Pain from Dry Socket usually starts:

  • A. Immediately
  • B. 24 hours
  • C. 3-4 days after extraction
  • D. 1 month later

47. Torus Palatinus is:

  • A. A malignant tumor
  • B. A cyst
  • C. A bony exostosis (developmental anomaly)
  • D. An abscess

48. Which component of Amalgam reduces Gamma-2 phase (corrosion)?

  • A. Silver
  • B. Tin
  • C. Copper (High Copper Amalgam)
  • D. Zinc

49. Setting time of Zinc Phosphate cement is increased by:

  • A. Using a cool slab
  • B. Adding water
  • C. Mixing fast
  • D. Using more powder

50. The “Line of Draw” is related to:

  • A. Extraction
  • B. Path of insertion for a bridge/denture
  • C. Incision line
  • D. X-ray angle

51. Frey’s Syndrome (Gustatory Sweating) is a complication of:

  • A. Parotid Surgery
  • B. Thyroid Surgery
  • C. Neck Dissection
  • D. TMJ Surgery

52. Most common cause of angular cheilitis in denture wearers:

  • A. Decreased Vertical Dimension (VDO)
  • B. Allergy to acrylic
  • C. Vitamin A deficiency
  • D. Smoking

53. In Class III Malocclusion:

  • A. Maxilla is forward
  • B. Mandible is forward (Prognathism)
  • C. Deep bite
  • D. Narrow arch

54. Best time to treat a pregnant patient:

  • A. First Trimester
  • B. Second Trimester
  • C. Third Trimester
  • D. Never

55. Hypoglycemia (low sugar) in a diabetic patient is characterized by:

  • A. Hot dry skin, fruity breath
  • B. Sweating, trembling, confusion (Insulin Shock)
  • C. Thirst, polyuria
  • D. Deep breathing

56. “Sulfur granules” are seen in:

  • A. TB
  • B. Actinomycosis
  • C. Syphilis
  • D. Histoplasmosis

57. Median Rhomboid Glossitis is associated with:

  • A. Syphilis
  • B. Candida albicans
  • C. Trauma
  • D. Vitamin deficiency

58. Normal bleeding time (Duke’s method) is:

  • A. 1-5 minutes
  • B. 10-15 minutes
  • C. 30 seconds
  • D. 1 hour

59. Which radiograph is best for Interproximal Caries?

  • A. Periapical
  • B. Bitewing
  • C. Occlusal
  • D. Lateral Ceph

60. Glass Ionomer Cement bonds to tooth structure via:

  • A. Micromechanical retention
  • B. Chelation (Ionic bond with Calcium)
  • C. Resin tags
  • D. Covalent bonds

Section 2: General Knowledge & Awareness (20%)

Pakistan Affairs, Everyday Science, Tech, Islamiyat

61. The current President of Pakistan (2025/26 term) is:

  • A. Asif Ali Zardari
  • B. Arif Alvi
  • C. Mamnoon Hussain
  • D. Shehbaz Sharif

62. Total number of districts in Sindh is:

  • A. 29
  • B. 30
  • C. 24
  • D. 35

63. Which Pakistani scientist won the Nobel Prize?

  • A. Dr. Abdul Qadeer Khan
  • B. Dr. Abdus Salam (Physics, 1979)
  • C. Dr. Samar Mubarakmand
  • D. Dr. Atta-ur-Rahman

64. The “City of Saints” in Pakistan is:

  • A. Lahore
  • B. Multan
  • C. Sehwan
  • D. Hyderabad

65. Mohenjo-Daro is located in which district of Sindh?

  • A. Larkana
  • B. Sukkur
  • C. Dadu
  • D. Jamshoro

66. Deficiency of Iodine causes:

  • A. Anemia
  • B. Goiter
  • C. Scurvy
  • D. Night Blindness

67. The gas used in fire extinguishers is:

  • A. Oxygen
  • B. Nitrogen
  • C. Carbon Dioxide
  • D. Hydrogen

68. Light travels fastest in:

  • A. Water
  • B. Glass
  • C. Vacuum
  • D. Air

69. “ChatGPT” was developed by:

  • A. Google
  • B. Microsoft
  • C. OpenAI
  • D. Facebook

70. In computing, 1 Terabyte (TB) is equal to:

  • A. 1024 Gigabytes (GB)
  • B. 1000 Gigabytes
  • C. 1024 Megabytes
  • D. 500 Gigabytes

71. The first Mosque built by the Holy Prophet (PBUH) was:

  • A. Masjid-e-Nabvi
  • B. Masjid-e-Haram
  • C. Masjid-e-Quba
  • D. Masjid-e-Aqsa

72. Zakat became obligatory in:

  • A. 2 AH
  • B. 3 AH
  • C. 5 AH
  • D. 9 AH

73. The title “Saifullah” (Sword of Allah) belongs to:

  • A. Hazrat Ali (RA)
  • B. Hazrat Khalid bin Waleed (RA)
  • C. Hazrat Umar (RA)
  • D. Hazrat Hamza (RA)

74. Total number of Madni Surahs in the Quran:

  • A. 86
  • B. 28
  • C. 114
  • D. 30

75. Which angel is responsible for bringing Wahi (Revelation)?

  • A. Hazrat Jibrael (AS)
  • B. Hazrat Mikael (AS)
  • C. Hazrat Israfil (AS)
  • D. Hazrat Izraeel (AS)

76. The capital of Australia is:

  • A. Sydney
  • B. Melbourne
  • C. Canberra
  • D. Perth

77. Currency of Turkey is:

  • A. Dinar
  • B. Rial
  • C. Lira
  • D. Euro

78. UN Headquarters is located in:

  • A. Geneva
  • B. New York
  • C. London
  • D. Paris

79. National flower of Pakistan:

  • A. Rose
  • B. Jasmine
  • C. Tulip
  • D. Sunflower

80. World Health Day is celebrated on:

  • A. 7th April
  • B. 1st May
  • C. 14th August
  • D. 25th December

Section 3: English Language Proficiency (20%)

Grammar, Vocabulary, Prepositions, Analogies

81. Synonym of DILIGENT:

  • A. Hardworking
  • B. Lazy
  • C. Intelligent
  • D. Quick

82. Synonym of LETHARGY:

  • A. Energy
  • B. Sluggishness
  • C. Joy
  • D. Anger

83. Synonym of PRAGMATIC:

  • A. Theoretical
  • B. Practical
  • C. Confused
  • D. Emotional

84. Antonym of OPTIMIST:

  • A. Hopeful
  • B. Realist
  • C. Pessimist
  • D. Dreamer

85. Antonym of CANDID:

  • A. Dishonest/Secretive
  • B. Frank
  • C. Open
  • D. Clear

86. Antonym of EXPAND:

  • A. Grow
  • B. Contract/Shrink
  • C. Widen
  • D. Stretch

87. He is superior _____ me.

  • A. than
  • B. from
  • C. to
  • D. over

88. The cat jumped _____ the table.

  • A. upon
  • B. in
  • C. at
  • D. with

89. I am tired _____ waiting.

  • A. with
  • B. from
  • C. of
  • D. by

90. She is good _____ Mathematics.

  • A. in
  • B. at
  • C. on
  • D. with

91. Birds : Nest :: Bees : _____

  • A. Hive
  • B. Hole
  • C. Tree
  • D. Flower

92. Doctor : Stethoscope :: Painter : _____

  • A. Brush
  • B. Paint
  • C. Canvas
  • D. Art

93. Choose the correct sentence:

  • A. One of the student is absent.
  • B. One of the students is absent.
  • C. One of the students are absent.
  • D. One of the student are absent.

94. Meaning of Idiom: “To burn the midnight oil”

  • A. To waste oil
  • B. To sleep late
  • C. To work/study late into the night
  • D. To cook food

95. Meaning of Idiom: “Apple of one’s eye”

  • A. A tasty fruit
  • B. Someone very precious/loved
  • C. A hidden enemy
  • D. A problem

96. You must abide _____ the rules.

  • A. with
  • B. by
  • C. on
  • D. to

97. He died _____ an accident.

  • A. of
  • B. in
  • C. with
  • D. by

98. Identify the Noun in: “Honesty is the best policy.”

  • A. Honesty
  • B. Best
  • C. Is
  • D. The

99. Famine means:

  • A. Flood
  • B. Extreme scarcity of food
  • C. War
  • D. Disease

100. Hand : Glove :: Foot : _____

D. Shoe

A. Leg

B. Sock

C. Toe

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